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Unfolding Nature Shop: Unfolding Nature: Being in the Implicate Order

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Re: Partial brain injury vs. total brain injury [Re: Icelander]
    #8472767 -

Icelander said:
backfromthedead said:
Icelander said:
We're too smart to believe in God over here.:lol:



Which planet would that be?:satansmoking:



The one obsessed with BULLSHIT stories.:what:



That might be all of them.



A pattern to be reckoned with, for sure.:hehehe:


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8474132 -

Veritas said:
Senor_Hongos said:
It is possible, I would say even likely, that the concepts are not being learned at that point, the word signifying the concept is being learned.  The reason I say this is because universals as sense perceptions, particularly visual, are identified by other animals without using words.  Birds and other animals can tell the difference between a triangle and a circle.  This is called perceptual abstraction.



They are learning to apply the word to a series of rules which add up to a concept.  The concept is NOT known prior to establishing the rules through repeated experiences and guidance from others. 




The confusion here is the difference between a concept and a percept.  As I mentioned, birds and other animals recognize the similarities between geometrical forms like circles and triangles; they would also recognize the difference between other forms such as wings and legs.  There are no "rules."  Percepts=recognition by similarity.


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These "rules" as you call them are a function of the mind, which is in place before the word signifying the concept (actually percept) is learned.



The word "mind" describes the function of the human brain, so it is accurate to say that "mind" exists prior to having the ability to learn concepts.  To claim that the "mind" has knowledge of concepts prior to exposure to said concepts seems quite baseless.  What support can you offer for this claim?



Again, this confusion between concept and precept (caused by me by being sloppy or inaccurate) is the root cause.  Perceptual recognition, be it visual or tactile or whatever, based on similarity is not something that is learned.  We don't learn similarity, we know it.  It is a function of the mind whether in animals or humans.  The evidence is obvious.  Humans may learn the similarity between a percept and the word signifying it, but the similarity is recognized before the word is learned.

Conceptual and perceptual abstraction are functions of the human mind; perceptual abstraction is a function of other animals.


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The concept of universals had its beginning with Plato.  However, down through the years it has had significant refinement.  Porphyry, Boethius, Aristotle, Bonaventure, down to William of Champeaux, Bernard of Chartres, Clarembald of Arras and Abelard have all had their say.



All also prior to technology which enabled us to view the brain at work.  Philosophy which attempts to describe physical functions without science has little chance of being scientifically accurate.




That is incorrect.  Philosophy describes the functions of the mind, something which is unobservable.  We can observe the brain and its functions; we cannot observe the mind and its functions.  Philosophy nevers attempts to do the job of empirical science nor should empirical science attempt to do the job of philosophy.

This would properly be the topic of another thread, but there is a difference between philosophy and science.  Each one covers specific problems and answers different questions.

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Sadly, neurological research has done nothing to explain it.  The debate between two factions continues unabated to this day.  It is my contention that neurological research is unable to explain it because it is out of empirical science's grasp.




Are you saying that neurological methods cannot establish that concepts are stored in memory?  I beg to differ.  Damage to the memory centers of the brain most definitely can result in loss of the ability to conceptualize. 



:lol:  We are talking at cross purposes.  I am definitely saying that neurological research cannot examine the mind, only philosophy can.  But I am not saying, nor have I ever said, that the brain is not a necessary condition for the mind.

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Well, Ockham's razor for one.  The rule of parsimony states we do not add more reasons for a thing if a simpler, or lesser, answer will do.  The existence of an immaterial "mind" is the only answer that will suffice in the question of how we recognize sensate perceptions--we being animals. 



Please elaborate.  How is the function of our physical brain insufficient to explain how we recognize sensate perceptions?  The simplest explanation seems to be that our cognitive process is based in physical reality, and not in an imaginary realm of pure forms.



Imaginary forms--I am sure you are refering to Plato--are not what we are talking about.  We recognize the sensate perceptions by our brains, it is the similarity or difference of the forms that is a function of the mind.  More importantly,  conceptual abstraction, which only humans possess, is purely a function of the mind.

The human mind uses propositional speech to explain intangibles, i.e. concepts, i.e. things not found in the material world such as universals and things like justice and love other than individual examples.  These things do not exist in matter.  Please explain how they could function if they were found in matter.

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The conclusion then is that our concepts which have universality cannot be embodied in matter.  If the concepts were acts of the brain, they would be embodied in matter so they couldn't have the requisite universality to function as concepts that enable us to think of individual things.

Therefore, the power of conceptual thought that we use to form concepts (and use them) has to be immaterial.



You are confusing the idea with the mechanism responsible for comprehending the idea.  The fact that "universals" cannot be demonstrated as a tangible object in no way implies that a tangible object (our brain) is incapable of storing information about them.  This logic fails utterly. 



You misunderstood.  The brain can, and does, store data.  The mind uses the data during conceptual abstraction.  Our cognitive sensory powers do not and cannot experience, or a better word "apprehend," universals.  Their reach does not go beyond individuals.  We would not be able to apprehend universals if we did not have the power of intellect, which is the mind, not the brain.

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The human brain is quite capable of representing things to itself via words rather than concrete objects.  Learning is a process of building memories, and these memories may consist of both intangible thoughts AND tangible experiences.  Our physical brain is literal, yet it is capable of figurative cognition.



Yet you have failed to demonstrate dog or any other universal, nor can you.  If you could we could not use it in the mind.  Perhaps a better analogy would be a lens. Concepts and ideas are the lens by which we understand the world of sensate experiences.  We do not see the lens, but we use it.  If the lens were opaque, it would be useless as a lens.


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8474246 -

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The human mind uses propositional speech to explain intangibles, i.e. concepts, i.e. things not found in the material world such as universals and things like justice and love other than individual examples. These things do not exist in matter. Please explain how they could function if they were found in matter.



The fact that they do not exist in matter does not mean that we cannot record them in matter. Can you write down on paper what we mean by "justice"? Paper is matter.

If you ask an Alzheimer's patient what is meant by "peace" or "freedom," the plaques in their physical brain may have destroyed the portion of their memory regarding these ideas. Their ideas of things immaterial AND material may be lost due to the physical changes wrought by their disease, clearly demonstrating that our knowledge is recorded in our grey matter.

The human ability to abstract is not due to an immaterial mind, but to our quite physical and material neocortex.

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The brain can, and does, store data. The mind uses the data during conceptual abstraction. Our cognitive sensory powers do not and cannot experience, or a better word "apprehend," universals. Their reach does not go beyond individuals. We would not be able to apprehend universals if we did not have the power of intellect, which is the mind, not the brain.



This is pure conjecture. Where is the evidence which shows that our new brain is incapable of apprehending universals, or that our intellect is not based in our physical brain?

You still have not supplied any valid reasons why I should accept your claim that the physical brain is not a sufficient condition for consciousness. Continuing to assert that Universals are beyond the scope of the physical, as they, themselves are not physical, is an illogical argument.

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Yet you have failed to demonstrate dog or any other universal, nor can you.



We cannot demonstrate non-physical concepts, but we can define them. This is the means by which our brain understands figurative ideas.

BTW, "precept" is inaccurate, as it means "A rule or principle prescribing a particular course of action or conduct." Concept is correct, and precisely what I am discussing: "A general idea derived or inferred from specific instances or occurrences."

Also, words such as "love," "freedom,"justice," etc... are not "propositional speech," (perhaps you meant prepositional? Prepositions include "above," "beyond,"by" etc...) they are intangible nouns.

http://changingminds.org/techniques/language/speech_parts/abstract_nouns.htm

Edited by Veritas (06/02/08 11:54 AM)

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8474279 -

Quote:
BTW, "precept" is inaccurate, as it means "A rule or principle prescribing a particular course of action or conduct." Concept is correct, and precisely what I am discussing: "A general idea derived or inferred from specific instances or occurrences."



percept


--------------------
nystagmus dopamine guru inverted pop culture love scars of sorrow fleshy synesthesia hippie farts perpetual tinnitus
Reclaim the Swastika!

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Compass]
    #8474296 -

Quote:
Percept
A mental impression of something perceived by the senses, viewed as the basic component in the formation of concepts; a sense datum.



As the spelling of this within his post was inconsistent, I went with "precept."  :shrug:

This definition indicates that percepts add up to concepts, which is exactly what I was describing in my example of repeated sense observations of individual dogs being compiled into a generalized idea of "dog."

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8474429 -

Veritas said:
Quote:
The human mind uses propositional speech to explain intangibles, i.e. concepts, i.e. things not found in the material world such as universals and things like justice and love other than individual examples. These things do not exist in matter. Please explain how they could function if they were found in matter.



The fact that they do not exist in matter does not mean that we cannot record them in matter. Can you write down on paper what we mean by "justice"? Paper is matter.



What you write on a piece of paper is a signification of a idea, again a conflation between concept and an idea. Concepts are a process of the mind that help us describe ideas. This conflation was authored by John Locke that has led to no end of philosophical problems--solipsism being one.

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If you ask an Alzheimer's patient what is meant by "peace" or "freedom," the plaques in their physical brain may have destroyed the portion of their memory regarding these ideas. Their ideas of things immaterial AND material may be lost due to the physical changes wrought by their disease, clearly demonstrating that our knowledge is recorded in our grey matter.

The human ability to abstract is not due to an immaterial mind, but to our quite physical and material neocortex.



Yet, you haven't show this or given a mechanism by which it works. See above answer as it also applies.

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The brain can, and does, store data. The mind uses the data during conceptual abstraction. Our cognitive sensory powers do not and cannot experience, or a better word "apprehend," universals. Their reach does not go beyond individuals. We would not be able to apprehend universals if we did not have the power of intellect, which is the mind, not the brain.



This is pure conjecture. Where is the evidence which shows that our new brain is incapable of apprehending universals, or that our intellect is not based in our physical brain?



I have already given the evidence. There is no reason to repeat it. Please do not be confused by the use of the word 'apprehend'. I am using it as the means whereby our brain receives sensate data, NOT an understanding of the data. Obviously, even a cursory reading of what I have written so far would lead someone to the conclusion that that the mind is capable of understanding the idea of universals. If that were not so, we couldn't be having this conversation.

Our intellect is based on the brain as a necessary condition. We have already covered that. Where we seem to disagree is whether or not the brain is a sufficient condition for conceptual--in the case of humans--or perceptual abstraction in the case of other animals.

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You still have not supplied any valid reasons why I should accept your claim that the physical brain is not a sufficient condition for consciousness. Continuing to assert that Universals are beyond the scope of the physical, as they, themselves are not physical, is an illogical argument.



I have given the reasons necessary for understanding the premise(s) and the conclusion. If they are illogical to you, please explain why. So far, you haven't given any reasons to conclude the brain is sufficient for conceptual abstraction.

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Yet you have failed to demonstrate dog or any other universal, nor can you.



We cannot demonstrate non-physical concepts, but we can define them. This is the means by which our brain understands figurative ideas.



A conflation, again, between what constitutes an idea and a concept. I haven't time at the moment, but when I get the chance (soon). I will explain, in detail, the difference between them.

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BTW, "precept" is inaccurate, as it means "A rule or principle prescribing a particular course of action or conduct." Concept is correct, and precisely what I am discussing: "A general idea derived or inferred from specific instances or occurrences."

Also, words such as "love," "freedom,"justice," etc... are not "propositional speech," (perhaps you meant prepositional? Prepositions include "above," "beyond,"by" etc...) they are intangible nouns.

http://changingminds.org/techniques/language/speech_parts/abstract_nouns.htm



If I typed precept when I meant percept, it was a typo. "Precept" comes more easily to the fingers. I don't often discuss percepts because few understand them or what they signify.

Early I also typed prepositional when I meant propositional--propositional as in logic.

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8474459 -

I don't often discuss percepts because few understand them or what they signify.


This is because you are a HUGE GENIUS and you are posting at the shroomery. Which is interesting in itself. Same for you Veritas.:lol:


--------------------
"Don't believe everything you think". -Anom.

" All that lives was born to die"-Anom.

With much wisdom comes much sorrow,
The more knowledge, the more grief.
Ecclesiastes circa 350 BC

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8474548 -

Rather than respond in detail, I will state the basis of my disagreement:

1. We can establish that the physical brain exists, and that our experience of consciousness is reliant upon and demonstrated by the measurable function of the brain.

2. Given #1, the simplest and most-elegant explanation of ALL cognition is that it occurs as a function of the physical brain.

3. Unless and until it is shown that human cognition is not fully explained by the function of the physical brain, there is no reason to elaborate and invent other explanations.

As it is not possible to prove a negative (the immaterial mind does not exist), it is up to the claimant to prove the positive (the immaterial mind does exist). You have not offered proof nor logical arguments for the existence of an immaterial mind. You have discussed aspects of visual acuity (recognition of similarities) and higher functions of the neocortex (abstract thought), and claimed that the brain is incapable of these functions. Where is the support for this claim?

I'll demonstrate the circular logic involved in stating that the fact that we conceptualize means that we have an immaterial mind:

1. The brain is incapable of grasping immaterial concepts.

2. Humans are capable of grasping immaterial concepts.

3. Therefore humans must possess an immaterial mind which IS capable of grasping immaterial concepts.

Your premise (1) assumes that your conclusion has already been proven. There is no proof that the brain is incapable of grasping immaterial concepts, and your argument that the material nature of the brain prevents it from understanding the immaterial is not persuasive.

Wow! My internet research on this topic turned up an amazing paper from "Brain: The Journal of Neurology." It's quite long, but a great read.

Abstract

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The human mind uses propositional speech to explain intangibles, i.e. concepts, i.e. things not found in the material world such as universals and things like justice and love other than individual examples.



The difference between propositional and non-propositional speech is not whether the subject is tangible or not, but whether the formulation of the individual's comments relies solely on recitation from memory (non-prop) or requires synthesis of a variety of memories.

Example: in response to the interview question "what is your greatest strength," one interviewee recites a prepared statement from memory, while the other draws upon memories of prior successes and accolades in order to answer the question spontaneously. The first interviewee is utilizing non-propositional speech, whereas the second is engaging in propositional speech.

You mentioned logic in your follow-up post, but this does not seem to apply:

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Propositional logic, also known as sentential logic, is that branch of logic that studies ways of combining or altering statements or propositions to form more complicated statements or propositions. Joining two simpler propositions with the word "and" is one common way of combining statements. When two statements are joined together with "and", the complex statement formed by them is true if and only if both the component statements are true.



Can you explain how this relates to the use of intangible nouns such as justice, love, truth, beauty, freedom, and so on?

Edited by Veritas (06/02/08 07:06 PM)

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8478677 -

Just wanted you to know I'm working up a reply. Life gets busy at times. Thanks for your post.


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8489269 -

This essay makes this debate a little more accessible for me. Part two.

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: falcon]
    #8490001 -

Thank you, falcon.  Some of my thoughts are adapted from the Radical Academy.

Veritas:

The original claim of the thread was that the brain is a sufficient condition for conceptual thought.  That claim has not been proven nor has adequate evidence been given for it.  Nevertheless, my counterclaim was that the brain is not a sufficient condition, but only a necessary one.  That being the case, it was up to me to provide evidence for it.  I have.  However, because of the style of our dialogue it has never been made adequately clear.  If that were the case, you would not have made your last post.  Our ability to communicate is dependent on two things: (1) my ability to explain and, (2) your ability to understand.  I should add that the ability to understand could be hampered by an internal bias.  In this instance, a predisposition to imagine that the material world "is all there is, or was, or ever will be."

If you read the link you posted (I have), you will see various statements that parallel mine.  The most striking (to me) was the honest admission that philosophy also plays a significant role in helping to resolve this issue.  It is found in the conclusion:

Quote:
Whether scientific approaches will provide a completely satisfying explanation of awareness is a vexed philosophical issue. But the determination of recent work in neuroscience, psychology and philosophy to do justice both to the rich texture of experience and to its intimate, revealable relationship to neuronal events holds out great promise for the study of consciousness in years to come.



Compare that with my earlier statement:

Quote:
It is my contention that neurological research is unable to explain it because it is out of empirical science's grasp.  Only with philosophy and science working together may the answer be found.



That said; let me try to sum up my argument by creating a more accurate syllogism with the necessary logic behind it.

Claim:  The mind and the brain are not identical.  The brain is a physical organ made of matter; the mind is immaterial, i.e. not made of matter.

Premise #1.  Concepts whereby we understand what different things are like consist of meanings that are universal.

Reasoning:  Common names for classes or types of things get their meanings from the concepts we have.  Their meaning is universal.  That is, it always denotes a type of object, never an individual of the type.  Dog is one such type and denotes a class, i.e. a universal.

A concept is that by which we recognize an object of thought, e.g. doghood.  It is never that which we recognize.  This seems counterintuitive, but it is not.  If it was the means whereby we understood and what we understood, one of two philosophical errors would occur: a total skepticism, i.e. that reality exists but the mind may not know it (vis-à-vis Hume), or solipsism, i.e. everything may be a figment of my imagination (vis-à-vis Berkeley).

Premise #2.  Nothing that exists physically is a  universal. 

Reasoning:  Everything we perceive or apprehend through our senses are individuals; they are never classes or types of things in themselves.  Lassie or Rin Tin Tin were individual dogs belonging to the class of dogs, i.e. the universal, "dog."

Conclusion:  Concepts are universal in their signification of objects that are classes of things instead of individuals that are specific examples of the class.  Because they have universality, they cannot exist in matter.  They do, however, exist in our minds.  They are acts of cognition whereby we understand the world.  Therefore, they must be immaterial and not embodied in a material organ, i.e. the brain.


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8492048 -

This is our point of disagreement:

Quote:
Therefore, they must be immaterial and not embodied in a material organ, i.e. the brain.



Everything in our memory is indirectly represented, from sense impressions to thoughts.  We can recall thinking about something, though our past thoughts have no material existence.  It is not necessary for us to physically replicate that which we have experienced, and therefore both material AND immaterial aspects of our experience may be "recorded" in our material brain.

My position regarding materialism is not a bias, but rather a standpoint wherein what we can prove is the default setting.  Anything beyond what we can prove is subject to question, unless a clear lack in the material world points to "something else" being required in order to explain what is occurring. 

In the case of the existence of an immaterial mind, there is no convincing lack which persuades me that it is required to explain cognition.  I agree that cognition is a marvelously complex process, and appears to be more than the sum of its' parts, yet the desire to believe in an immaterial mind strikes me as wishful thinking.  After all, if we are not "merely" meat, then we might not cease to exist when our parts stop working.

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8492065 -

Veritas said:
This is our point of disagreement:

Quote:
Therefore, they must be immaterial and not embodied in a material organ, i.e. the brain.



Everything in our memory is indirectly represented, from sense impressions to thoughts.  We can recall thinking about something, though our past thoughts have no material existence.  It is not necessary for us to physically replicate that which we have experienced, and therefore both material AND immaterial aspects of our experience may be "recorded" in our material brain.



If that is your claim, you must provide evidence for it.  I do not, and have not, seen any.

Quote:
My position regarding materialism is not a bias, but rather a standpoint wherein what we can prove is the default setting.  Anything beyond what we can prove is subject to question, unless a clear lack in the material world points to "something else" being required in order to explain what is occurring. 



One need not prove something by means of empirical evidence.  One may extrapolate, empirically or philosophically.

Quote:
In the case of the existence of an immaterial mind, there is no convincing lack which persuades me that it is required to explain cognition.  I agree that cognition is a marvelously complex process, and appears to be more than the sum of its' parts, yet the desire to believe in an immaterial mind strikes me as wishful thinking.  After all, if we are not "merely" meat, then we might not cease to exist when our parts stop working.



Did you actually read the link you provided?  Brain, The Journal of Neurology, admits this issue has not been solved AND that it requires the aid of philosophy to solve it.


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8492093 -

So Consciousness fist...  Then life...??:thumbup:


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8492100 -

I am not claiming that this issue has been resolved, I am stating that my default position is that cognition is physical.

The article did not state that philosophy would always be required to explain consciousness, what it said was:

Quote:
Future work in philosophy and science may change the ways in which we think about consciousness so radically that its reduction to physical process begins to look plausible. For the time being we have no alternative but to continue to use all three vocabularies of biology, behaviour and experience in our efforts to understand the mind.



Until and unless I see a true "gap" between our experience of consciousness and the functionality of our brain, I will continue with my default working theory.  As it is quite clear that the brain exists, and clear that our cognition is directly impacted by damage to our physical brain, I need not prove this position.

The position which requires substantiation is the one which attempts to elaborate upon what is evident, and extrapolate from subjective (possibly wishful) thinking to objective truth.  There is no more proof of an immaterial mind than there is proof of an immaterial soul, though each idea has great allure.  Personally, I am wary of ideas about the world which hold such allure, yet have no verifiable basis--it seems all too likely that they are insubstantial fantasies.  :shrug:

Methinks we shall have to agree to disagree on this subject, sir.  I DO understand your position, yet remain unconvinced by your argument.

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: backfromthedead]
    #8492243 -

offensive ardent
lucid maiden hardening
a consciousness fist

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Middleman]
    #8492287 -

Middleman said:
offensive ardent
lucid maiden hardening
a consciousness fist



Like...  "I will rise from this void, if its the last thing I do...!?":uptosomething:




Hey that was fun for a while...  "Can I go home NOW??"


"Nope.  That's not real, silly, those are just stories...  People have been talking about that for AGES.  *fuckin shifty weasel evil face*" :sad::mad2:  *CLENCH*


:banghead:


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Veritas]
    #8492338 -

Veritas said:
Methinks we shall have to agree to disagree on this subject, sir.  I DO understand your position, yet remain unconvinced by your argument.



That is more than adequate for me.  I am pleased we had this discussion.  My intention was not to convince, but to explain an alternate view.

:smile:


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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: Mr. Mushrooms]
    #8493830 -

I'm with Veritas on this one. If if there was a disconnect between the mind and the physical brain, it has yet to become apparent (through anything other than philosophical discussion), that is, the monist view works perfectly. I don't expect anything to come along that would require us to rethink that.
Here's to you, gentlemen :chugbeer:


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I know... that just the smallest
                                                part of the world belongs to me
You know... I'm not a blind man
                                                    but truth is the hardest thing to see

Edited by zouden (06/06/08 08:38 PM)

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Re: Partial brain unjury vs. total brain injury [Re: zouden]
    #8493915 -

long term memory outside the brain?


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Unfolding Nature Shop: Unfolding Nature: Being in the Implicate Order


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