zappaisgod said:
Veritas said: This ruling sets the precedent for other states to change their own statutes regarding same-sex marriage.
I don't think it does anything of the kind other than establishing some language which might be useful in an argument in another state. Like I said, California, or any other state, could amend their constitution to allow a ban. That would totally remove this decision from relevance. THEN, if challenged, there would become a larger US Constitution argument, which has yet to be tackled.
Yep, that's all it is, and I agree, states that don't want the gays to marry should do it the right way, amend their constitution. I think these amendments should still fail under federal review, but that's another issue.
[warning, irrelevancy ahead] What's interesting is that up until sometime in the 70's Cali statutes didn't ban gay marriage by their plain language however; the 'activist-judges' read a ban into the statute, which only defined age limits as the criteria, nowhere limiting licenses on the basis of the sex of the partners. This is a good example of the 'activist-judge' that isn't advancing a liberal agenda, something I wish would get more attention by those who constantly deride people reading privacy rights into the constituion, but ignore decisions concluding a statute totally silent on gay vs. straight marriage bans the former simply because no one noticed it before.
This is one of the more trivial manifestations of what was likely a legislative-intent reasoning by the cali judges/clerks interpreting the statute, but nonetheless demonstrates how dangerous such a philosophy can be, it allows judges to totally rewrite statutes to suit what they think it should mean. Trivial in this case, but when you're dealing w/ a lawsuit where a business's future or a person's livelihood hang in the balance, can be devastating, especially to the person who read the damn law, but didn't realize a judge would ignore it just cuz some congressional committee member gave a speech that contradicted the language actually voted on by the legislature. [/end irrelevancy]
Quote: zappaisgod said:I understand that, but the California state court is not qualified to rule on US constitutional matters and thus completely and utterly irrelevant to any other state.
It may be true of other state laws depending on the other states' constitutions. California could pass a California constitutional amendment forbidding gay marriage and the California state court will have zero to say about it and it will have nothing to do with any other states.
The states can rule on the federal constitution, and even statutes, and that interpretation is binding on the state, provided there isn't later a contrary interpretation later by a federal court of jurisdiction, but, like you acknowledge, that state ruling on the US law doesn't become a valid interpretation of the US law outside of that state. The other issue is when states rule on federal constitutional/statutory grounds they can be overruled by the US supreme court on direct review of that very case.
Likely California sought to preclude federal review, so they based their decision solely on the California law, which thereby prevents any appealette jurisdiction of the supreme court, in effect. There was a recent search and seizure case where some state ruled that the federal constitution bared a search and threw out the evidence, in a ruling I liked, but they were overruled by the US supreme court. I wondered why they didn't just base their desicion on their own darn law if they thought it was sound, then they wouldn't have been able to be overruled
Quote: veritassaid:You are correct in that the only court qualified to overrule state laws based upon unconstitutionality is the U.S. Supreme Court. However, states may change their own statutes based upon a recognition of the state Supreme Court that they are in conflict with the U.S. Constitution. This ruling sets the precedent for other states to change their own statutes regarding same-sex marriage.
If many states overturn their own laws based upon the 14th Amendment, it may be that the U.S. Supreme Court will overrule the remaining state statutes based upon unconstitutionality.
They didn't rule on the US 14th amendment, they ruled on their own constitution, likely to avoid having to deal w/ the supreme court's prior decisions and preclude their review in this case.
And states can indeed overrule their own law on whatever ground they like. The only issue is that a ruling premised upon federal law is vulnerable to either direct review of the supreme court or a contrary interpretation, in another case (since there is no direct review of state court proceedings by lower federal courts), by a federal court of jurisdiction over them.
States consider, and overrule, their own statutes on both state and federal grounds all the time, and they have authority to do so. Its just that you often here about federal law cuz some guy sued someone else on federal grounds, and both the plaintiff and the defendant have the right to litigate in a US court if there is a federal question. So many of the suits are brought in, or removed to, federal courts, since we have so many damn federal laws now, in an attempt to avoid local politics, i.e. suing the police/city or an employer that is politically powerful in the county and having to deal w/ a county judge who's up for reelection in a few years who likely has to answer to both his party, his pocketbook, and his local electorate- and may also be an idiot.
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