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Reged: 06/18/01 Posts: 6379 Loc: orbit |
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I was just wondering what people thought about the reasons why the majority of Psilocybe species around today are the result of sympatric specification rather than allopatric specification. The first is where one species has such significant variables within its own makeup in one location that it becomes two distinct species as a response to an environmental variable. The later is where one species becomes geographically isolated and evolve in seperate environments. If we are to accept that many of the woodloving psilocybes in the United States and Australia are representations of species from either southern america (weilli? Baeocystis?) or Europe (cyanescens and allies), we would have to concede that their breakup into seperate catagories (azurescens, bohemica, subaeruginosa, cyanescens, eucalypta (?) ) would possibly be a result of sympatric specification (where cyanescens broke into azurescens and cyanescens in the US, or into cyanescens and bohemica in europe or once it became subaeruginosa through geographical isolation, became subaeruginosa and eucalypta (if we accept there differences here for a moment)) The big question is what kind of factors would produce sympatric specification in on geographical region?? --------------------
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